- No one is standing on "King James Onlyism" here. It is well known that the apocrypha was not considered canon and was not included. In fact, Jesus, the apostles, or the early church leaders never quoted from it, so that should ring some bells. No one is saying King James Only here. We are discussing the apocrypha. Hopefully the aberration of jumping to conclusions and wrongly judging intent or motives will shrivel up and die. While I don't care for the modern translations for obvious reasons, it doesn't mean I am a King James Onlyist. I actually use the NKJV. I could go into manuscript detail about the modern versions, but this thread is about the APOCRYPHA, though you made it a forum to renounce "King James Onlyists" and for the life of me I have no idea why.
- Tsk, Tsk!!! Such bickering when any of you could document your assertions! The first time the King James appeared sans apocrypha was 1666. Up until that time, the "intertestamentals" were always included; http://www.bible-researcher.com/kjv1.html
- I agree. Where is the 1611 - They do not offer it now, if they ever did.