Dr. Runge, I am working through Philippians 4 with the HD commentary and LDGNT. I agree with your understanding of 4:4-7 and it's connection to the rest of what Paul is saying (even though there are no connectives present). But if choice implies meaning, what meaning would you associate with Paul's choice not to use connectives here? What is it about the commands (here and near the end of other epistles) that he chooses not to use connectives? Is there some sort of pragmatic effect created by the discourse when he writes this way?
And are there any guidelines for tracing Paul's argument when you get to passages that have no connectives?
(Another example of this that is not from Paul would be Mark's presentation of Jesus' discourse with his disciples in Mark 9:42-50)
Any help or resources would be greatly appreciated!
- Dear Brother, you might like to see a new post in Visual Bible Commentary Corner for this concern.