I noticed that in some versions claiming to present the Authorized King James Version including this one and it would seem those from Thomas Nelson too, Genesis 11:3 presents the word thoroughly while others present it as throughly. While I understand that they both have the same meaning and so are both equally correct, which reflects the standardized KJV? I would have thought that a four-hundred-year-old translation would have been fixed and standardized by now.

I'm using the KJV and the Scofield Reference footnotes as the default Bible and reference notes in an 'Interfaith Devotions and English Bible Study' that I facilitate just because the KJV is the most read English translation and Scofield's 1917 footnotes are widely read by English-speaking Christians, so this gives an accurate view of how many Christians interpret the Bible. I personally disagree with many of Scofield's notes; but seeing ghat I don't profess the Christian Faith myself, that's to be expected. The participants enjoy it though.

For some reason, this site shows that I don't yet own the KJV and so must purchase it; yet in my library, I've already freely downloaded it. Does it just offer even more features if I buy it, or is this just a glitch in the system?

I don't profess the Christian Faith myself; but when I reached out to local churches to help me with an Interfaith Devotions and English Bible Study program that I'd initiated at a local shelter, a local pastor recommended this study Bible. I might not necessarily agree with all of its annotation, but I do find that it presents the Christian understanding of the Holy Bible in a clear way for non-Christians to understand. Highly recommended for Interfaith Bible studies. Thank you!