Lk 1:38 LEB/default: "the Lord's female slave"
- I think the LEB translation is exceptionally bad. Just that Greek knows grammatical gender doesn't warrant introducing "female" here (noted in LEB also) - the FSB note uses "slave" without a link or discussion, even though all other translations available for FSB don't use "slave", but "servant", "bondservant", "handmaid", "bondslave" (in this order of frequency). I personally think it is misleading to use "the Lord's slave" since it conveys a totally wrong picture.
Even the author of ZECNT who uses "slave" (coming from a Southern Baptist background - see HCSB) puts in a long explanantion: "The term slave (δούλη) is not degrading as if she were only a domestic drudge. As “a slave of the Lord” she has an exalted status as one close to the Lord and willing to perform the humblest service out of loyalty and love. The term is applied to Joshua and David. Most importantly, God chose Israel to be his servant. The compliant and faithful Mary represents what God called Israel to become."
Luke 1:38Faithlife Study Bible
1:38 the Lord’s female slave Mary indicates that she is willing to do whatever God requires of her.
- I think, some of Garland's explanations in ZECNT could be warranted here. Even if not, FSB should rather be worded "Mary calls herself a servant/slave/handmaid (Greek doulos, see XXX for discussion) to demonstrate that she..."