Dr. Runge, I'm referencing your work on Discourse grammar for a project I am researching and have found your work on men/de to be helpful. Do you know, or know of anyone who has studied, whether men/de clauses or phrases, where verbs are present, always have the same mood for both verbs? I.e. "men" + indicative always results in "de" + indicative, or can "men" + indicative result in "de" + subjunctive/imperative, etc.? I am trying to figure out whether the "Men" in 1Co 12:28 should be understood as being balanced out by "de" in 1Co 12:31, and if so whether that grammatical construction would then determine the mood of ZELOUTE in v.31.