In segment #87, Dr. Heiser talks about לְמַעַן (lĕmaʿan) as a conjunction. This is how it is categorized in the example grammar as well. However, the ESV reverse interlinear calls it a preposition in both verses Dr. Heiser cites. I'm confused.
- It looks like the reverse interlinear always has that term tagged as a preposition. That word can function as either a preposition or a conjunction as the link to the Biblical Hebrew Reference Grammar indicates. Hebrew dictionaries also point to its use as both a conjunction or preposition. I'm not sure why the reverse interlinear never tags it as a preposition.
