Ps 138:1 (before the gods). Why is the word "before", listed as a noun, common, construct, in the morph, when it appears to be an adverb?

  1. I know that this is an old post but I was just browsing the list and saw this. Bob, the answer has to do with Hebrew grammar. נֶ֫גֶד is in "construct" with אֱלֹהִ֣ים. Only nouns can be in construct. Hope this helps.