• I had no idea how many Jewish ideas were found in the Gospel of John until I began working through it with your "Yeshua" book. It brings SO much more richness to the text being able to connect Jesus' words to their context.

    1.  — Edited

      John's opening verses are in themselves purely Jewish, e.g. "In the beginning was the Word..". John's use of 'Word' comes from a paraphrase of the Targum Neofiti that refers to the power of God's spoken word the Jews called 'Memra', which means 'Word'. John is telling the Jewish community that "Hey, you know that thing you called 'Memra'? Yeah, this Memra, the Word, his name is actually Jesus. Let me tell you about Jesus..." ...and John's Gospel went from there to do precisely that. (In the Greek NT the translation is 'Logos' that literally means 'word', but in the biblical context it has been used to mean God and loses the actual origin of of the Targum Neofiti where John took this from)

  • I hope to buy your books next year! I am also hoping that within the next 20 years we can have an extremely over-the-top deep, theological, exegesis (see "on steroids") Messianic Judaic Commentary on the entire Bible. See 66 volumes with 1 volume per book in the bible with hundreds of pages per book with Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek and detailed explanations. See "I am delusional". ROFL I do own The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament Series by Kittel, The Interpreter's Bible series, and The Soncino Books of the Bible 14 volume series. I'm a Messianic Jew with brain damage who never accepted the brain damage. I look Norwegian-Scottish, but am known for being the "person who annoyed some of the Jews by dancing with a Tallit over my head". I was dancing in intercessory prayer for Orthodox Israeli Rabbis to become saved - when it was done at the Synagogue. The picture that went around the world, was a photo shoot, illustrating back to that other day. Unfortunately I don't have a picture of it. Blessings!

    1. I have enjoyed reading your book "Israelology" and I'm really starting to understand the differences between the two systems of theology - Thank you. But I do have a concern about your perspective on the audience of 1 Peter. In Israelology you wrote on page 187, "It is true that the majority of the believers in the provinces mentioned were Gentile believers, but Peter is addressing himself to the Jewish believers only. For that reason, Peter does not use Paul’s formula of “to the church (or churches) of …,” which would have been the case if he was addressing the Church as a whole." But how do we reconcile your thoughts on the audience with how Peter addressed his audience in 1 Peter 1:14 as having lived in ignorance? Does this description fit a Jewish audience who are described in Romans 9:4-5 as having the promises, covenants, and other blessings as Paul wrote? It almost appears that Peter might be writing to a mixed audience. Roger M. Raymer, a Dispensationalist and adjunct professor at DTS, appears to prefer a mixed audience as the recipients and explains such in the introduction to his commentary on 1 Peter: "Gentile readers would have noted Peter’s exhortation to holy living in light of their background of complete ignorance of God’s Word (1:14). Gentile Christians also would have been greatly encouraged by the fact that though they were in ignorance, they were now considered “the people of God” (2:10). Clearly Peter carefully included both Jewish and Gentile Christians in his letter of encouragement to the churches of Asia Minor." Roger M. Raymer, “1 Peter,” in The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures, ed. J. F. Walvoord and R. B. Zuck, vol. 2 (Wheaton, IL: Victor Books, 1985), 838. Would you consider accepting a mixed audience and from there allowing certain parts of Peter's first epistle for Jewish Christians while other parts of Peter's first epistle for Gentile Christians? Or do you still prefer the entire epistle to be directed to Jewish Christians only?

      1.  — Edited

        ANSWER FROM DR. FRUCHTENBAUM Thank you for your question. No, I do not see First Peter being written to both Jewish and Gentile audiences - What I see is that he is writing to a group of Messianic Jews and states things that would apply only to Messianic Jews which would be mostly true in 1:1 - 2:10 and other things he writes about would be applicable to believers in general. This is true with other epistles such as First Corinthians where he says things which are unique with the Corinthians and other things he says are true of the churches in general. As for 1:14, the ignorance he is referring to is the ignorance of Scripture but the ignorance they had previously had concerning who the Messiah was and is. With this email I will be including pages from our commentary: The Messianic Jewish Epistles: Hebrews, James, I & II Peter and Jude pages xvii, 317 - 344 I pray that you will find all this helpful. Dr. Fruchtenbaum

      2. While I usually agree with Dr. Fruchtenbaum, I don't agree with this. Paul speaks only of three groups (Jews, Gentiles, and the church of God). I simply don't see a category for Christian Jews who are in a Church separate from the Gentiles.

      3. Dr. Fruchtenbaum and J. Isaac Gabizon, thank you for taking the time to provide a response. Yes, your reply helped me understand the way you understand Peter's epistle. I pray that the Lord continue to bless you both.

    2. Is the Book Yeshua going to be on logos?
      1. has joined the group.