I have enjoyed reading your book "Israelology" and I'm really starting to understand the differences between the two systems of theology - Thank you. But I do have a concern about your perspective on the audience of 1 Peter. In Israelology you wrote on page 187, "It is true that the majority of the believers in the provinces mentioned were Gentile believers, but Peter is addressing himself to the Jewish believers only. For that reason, Peter does not use Paul’s formula of “to the church (or churches) of …,” which would have been the case if he was addressing the Church as a whole." But how do we reconcile your thoughts on the audience with how Peter addressed his audience in 1 Peter 1:14 as having lived in ignorance? Does this description fit a Jewish audience who are described in Romans 9:4-5 as having the promises, covenants, and other blessings as Paul wrote? It almost appears that Peter might be writing to a mixed audience. Roger M. Raymer, a Dispensationalist and adjunct professor at DTS, appears to prefer a mixed audience as the recipients and explains such in the introduction to his commentary on 1 Peter: "Gentile readers would have noted Peter’s exhortation to holy living in light of their background of complete ignorance of God’s Word (1:14). Gentile Christians also would have been greatly encouraged by the fact that though they were in ignorance, they were now considered “the people of God” (2:10). Clearly Peter carefully included both Jewish and Gentile Christians in his letter of encouragement to the churches of Asia Minor." Roger M. Raymer, “1 Peter,” in The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures, ed. J. F. Walvoord and R. B. Zuck, vol. 2 (Wheaton, IL: Victor Books, 1985), 838. Would you consider accepting a mixed audience and from there allowing certain parts of Peter's first epistle for Jewish Christians while other parts of Peter's first epistle for Gentile Christians? Or do you still prefer the entire epistle to be directed to Jewish Christians only?

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    ANSWER FROM DR. FRUCHTENBAUM Thank you for your question. No, I do not see First Peter being written to both Jewish and Gentile audiences - What I see is that he is writing to a group of Messianic Jews and states things that would apply only to Messianic Jews which would be mostly true in 1:1 - 2:10 and other things he writes about would be applicable to believers in general. This is true with other epistles such as First Corinthians where he says things which are unique with the Corinthians and other things he says are true of the churches in general. As for 1:14, the ignorance he is referring to is the ignorance of Scripture but the ignorance they had previously had concerning who the Messiah was and is. With this email I will be including pages from our commentary: The Messianic Jewish Epistles: Hebrews, James, I & II Peter and Jude pages xvii, 317 - 344 I pray that you will find all this helpful. Dr. Fruchtenbaum

  2. While I usually agree with Dr. Fruchtenbaum, I don't agree with this. Paul speaks only of three groups (Jews, Gentiles, and the church of God). I simply don't see a category for Christian Jews who are in a Church separate from the Gentiles.

  3. Dr. Fruchtenbaum and J. Isaac Gabizon, thank you for taking the time to provide a response. Yes, your reply helped me understand the way you understand Peter's epistle. I pray that the Lord continue to bless you both.